Re: The Real TWINS Paradox - the Simplest Version

Let it be supposed, in the following scenario, that 'acceleration'
is able to be accomplished in a manner, perhaps on some
electromagnetic basis, that applies an identical accelerating
force to every particle in an observer's reality, including himself,
his vehicle, and all his instruments, thus eliminating any
detectable gravitational effect of acceleration by the accelerated
observer.

Why does any gravitational effect have to be eliminated in order to
make the argument that follows?

Isn't the basis of the paradox to do with the apparent self
contradiction of relativity (as portrayed in SR)?

I'm not suggesting that gravity provides the answer (I don't know
whether it does or not) but any postulate that is used to support an
argument has to be based on a situation that can in fact occur in
nature (at least in theory). The one described cannot because the only
known force that can produce acceleration in the way described is
gravity. Electromagnetic forces can only accelerate charged particles.

.

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