Is the LT for time correct?



When comparing the length of an object from 2
different IRFs, one must refer to the endpoints
of the object as locatable simultaneously.
In fact, it seems that, this can be done only in
one IRF at a time, i.e. in the frame where the
object is not moving.
For the moving frame we can not attach a
certain time value to the L' length , can we?
If not, then, this makes the Lorentz transformation
for time, in it known form, questionable, doesn't it?
;--))

Regards, LL
.



Relevant Pages

  • Re: Is the LT for time correct?
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  • Re: Is the LT for time correct?
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  • Re: Is the LT for time correct?
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