Re: GR1916, available online.
- From: bz <bz+spr@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Fri, 14 Dec 2007 15:01:14 +0000 (UTC)
Alen <alen1@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote in news:afdbfe9f-406e-4d4c-9708-
caa509d050ff@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx:
I think that referring to your opinion as my honesty
with myself has to be arrogant in the extreme. I am
capable of disagreeing with you, you know.
I have never seen a comprehensive visualisation of GR
described - only the mathematics.
It is fairly well established that there are three different 'main modes'
of thinking and most people 'think best' in one of those modes.
The modes can be described as kinesthetic, visual, and aural.
If you can close your eyes and 'see a detailed, color picture in your
mind', you are visually oriented.
If you can 'imagine an orchestra playing, note by note', you are aurally
oriented.
If you can recall the motions necessary to perform a task, you are
kinesthetically oriented in your thinking.
Most people 'think' in a particular language.
They may be able to read and speak other languages but they think [and
dream] in one language, most of the time.
From the WORDS a person uses to describe their thinking, one gets a 'clue'as to their main mode of thinking.
'I feel like you don't like me' is a typical 'kinesthetics' phrase.
'I see what you mean' is a typical 'visually oriented' phrase.
'I hear that you are having problems' is a typical 'aurally oriented'
phrase.
It seems like communications is easiest if one 'speaks' in the same
language that the person they wish to communicate with uses.
If your wife uses 'feeling' phrases, and you use 'visual' phrases, you will
probably find that you have problems understanding each other and don't
know why.
My point in all of this is that just because you 'think in visualizations'
does not mean that someone that thinks in 'math equations' has less of an
understanding of what is going on than you do.
If they were a Spanish speaker and you spoke English to them, who would be
'at fault' for the lack of communications?
If they spoke Spanish to you and you understood only English, who would be
'at fault'?
What if there were some idea that could only be 'really expressed' in one
language?
Is it right to complain that the idea is wrong just because you don't
understand it?
Is it right to blame those who speak that language for not being able to
'translate' the idea into your language?
I don't think so, and I don't think that anyone is trying to insult you.
--
bz
please pardon my infinite ignorance, the set-of-things-I-do-not-know is an
infinite set.
bz+spr@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx remove ch100-5 to avoid spam trap
.
- References:
- Re: GR1916, available online.
- From: Alen
- Re: GR1916, available online.
- From: Tom Roberts
- Re: GR1916, available online.
- From: Alen
- Re: GR1916, available online.
- From: Tom Roberts
- Re: GR1916, available online.
- From: Alen
- Re: GR1916, available online.
- From: N:dlzc D:aol T:com \(dlzc\)
- Re: GR1916, available online.
- From: Alen
- Re: GR1916, available online.
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