Re: Comment on Wikipedia entry: Simple inference of time dilation

"G" <gehan_ameresekere@xxxxxxxxxxx> wrote in message
news:e2afdd31-88e7-4c1e-aaf1-dc11a6eeebc9@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
I never understood this A to B statement.

Neither does Androcles .. so don't ask him

Why establish by definition?

He is defining what time means at different locations .. how one is to know
that two clocks are in sync.

As we know the the speed og light is constant c within a given frame of
reference (and if you like, consider it from a source not moving in that
frame, and ballistic theory people would agree), then we know it must take
the same amount of time to travel the identical distances A->B and B->A. So
for two clock to be in sync, they must show that same difference in time.

If A and B are not moving relative to each other, the laws pf physics
adressed this long ago.

Yes .. indeed .. it is perfectly obvious.

If an and B are moving then,

Then it doesn't apply .. it only applies in an iFoR where A and B are
stationary. If A and B are moving (in our iFoR) in the direction of the
line from A to B, then the distance from A to B is longer than the distance
from B back to A (in our iFoR) and so that time taken is different (in our
iFoR) because the speed of light is the same in both dirations (in our
iFoR).


.

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