Re: May sound silly, but then it isn't my theory.
- From: Dono <sa_ge@xxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Sat, 15 Nov 2008 19:56:17 -0800 (PST)
On Nov 15, 7:40 pm, RP <no_mail_no_s...@xxxxxxxxx> wrote:
Here you said "The force between 1 and 2 is a Coulomb force equal to:
kQ^2/2 "
In K, yes. But what is the force between 1 and 2 in K' ?
In K the force is a Coulomb force equal to :
kQ^2/2
I also showed you how to calculate the force in K' (moving with v wrt
K). It becomes a Lorentz force equal to :
kQ^2/2 sqrt(1-(v/c)^2)
You've
avoided answering this repeatedly.
Cretin, Richard Perry
I showed you how to calculate it but you are simply unable to do any
calculations. Sad.
I lost count of how many times I
asked you that question. Of course the answer is kQ^2/4, but you are
afraid to commit to that for some reason.
Old fart , Richard Perry
You can plug in your favorite value for v and you get the answer. How
stooopid are you, really?
And as I said before, this
leads to a net transverse force on 2 in K' that doesn't exist in K.
Imbecile, Richard Perry
Force, momentum, total energy, mass are NOT frame invariant, old
goat.
You really need to learn relativity before attempting to disprove it.
.
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