Re: Could Mach's Principle be a real force?
- From: "Sue..." <suzysewnshow@xxxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Mon, 23 Feb 2009 13:10:54 -0800 (PST)
On Feb 23, 3:22 pm, selsi...@xxxxxxxxx wrote:
Machs Principle
***************
Mach's principle is defined as inertia originates in a kind of
interaction between bodies. (Wikipedia describing Einsteins view of
inertia recuperated the 18/02/2009)
Now most scientists agree with Mach's principle but few have a simple
explication of how it works.The words "kind of" are also not very
scientific.
Many experiments have proven this to many decimal values. Einstein's
general theory of relativity is a response to this question.
I will propose this formula over here without proof for simplicity.
F_acc=-G/c^2*M*m/r*a
G is the the gravitational constant
c the speed of light
M a distant mass
m the mass before us
and a the acceleration of mass m
This equation describes force of an accelerating mass on other mass's
due to acceleration and is what is responsible for inertia.
If we plug in some values we will see that the force in normal
circumstances virtually zero.
The first thing to note is the equation has a 1/r and not a 1/r^2.As
in general we will assume that the density is about equal in the whole
universe far away masses will have a much larger effect than those
near by. In order to understand this better one could look up any good
explication of Olber's paradox which applies if effect = 1/r^2.
If we now consider the acceleration of a mass m there will be an equal
and opposite force due to all the forces in the whole universe .
The sum of these forces is
f= m*integrate(G/c^2*(4*%pi*Density_Universe*r^2)/r,r,
0,Radius_Of_Universe)*a
Taking
radius of universe as 7e26m
and density of universe 9.9 e-27 kg/m^3
We get
G/c^2*integrate((4*%pi*Density_Universe*r^2)/r,r,0,Radius_Of_Universe)
==23
Using other values for the density and radius of the universe we get .
78
The true value is exactly 1 so that
f=m*a
Thus
2*G/c^2*%pi*Density_Universe*Radius_Of_Universe^2==1
This gives us a correspondence between the radius of the universe and
its density.
When one mass accelerates it causes all other masses in the whole
universe to accelerate in the opposite direction.
===============>
Our equation is f=m*a as we chose our units that this would be so.
We can see from this that if the ratio of the mass and / or radius of
the universe changes either c or G should also change.
Thus Mach's inertia is not just a philosophical question but a real
force that could be measured with extreme accelerations and very ,very
accurate measurements.
Is there a real force in the centre of a magnet?
There is wide acceptance of the Mach ~explanation~
of inertia and it is fundamental to most induced
gravity models. Coulomb forces differ
from induction forces but your fudging in
1/r^1 for 1/r^2 might be a reasonable way to
allow for it.
If I push my car an instant reaction force that
the sun contributes to, will result. There is no
8 minute lag involved and no superluminal signal.
General relativity and induction models have
mathematical and plausible mechanisms for making
the image of a distant mass locally available
for reaction forces. That seems to be lacking in
your calculations. The ~speed of gravity~ thing.
You might get a better feel for how it works from
an induction mechanism than from all the abstraction
in GR. If you just want to see how Mach's principle
might work, this toy model is an interesting
description.
he Origin of Gravity
Authors: C. P. Kouropoulos
http://arxiv.org/abs/physics/0107015
http://arxiv.org/abs/physics/0107015v1
An experiment?
<< Mach’s stipulation is favoured in
general relativity by the circumstance that
acceleration induction in accordance with
the gravitational field equations really exists,
although of such slight intensity that direct detection
by mechanical experiments is out of the question. >>
http://nobelprize.org/nobel_prizes/physics/laureates/1921/einstein-lecture.html
Sue...
.
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- Could Mach's Principle be a real force?
- From: selsickr
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