Re: Does gravity do work on the freely falling body?

On Apr 25, 1:28 pm, "Sue..." <suzysewns...@xxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
On Apr 25, 2:35 pm, Phil <acceleratedfreef...@xxxxxxxxx> wrote:

On Apr 25, 12:02 pm, "Sue..." <suzysewns...@xxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:

On Apr 25, 9:59 am, Phil <acceleratedfreef...@xxxxxxxxx> wrote:

All inertial frames are totally equivalent
for the performance of all physical experiments.

In other words, it is impossible to perform a physical
experiment which differentiates in any fundamental sense
between different inertial frames. By definition, Newton's
laws of motion take the same form in all inertial frames.
Einstein generalized[1] this result in his special theory of
relativity by asserting that all laws of physics take the
same form in all inertial frames.

======

So what? If inertial frames are co-accelerated by gravity the same
holds true. However, if inertial frames are accelerated in an non-
uniform field then inertial bodies accelerate with respect to one
other. So if inertial bodies accelerate with respect to one another
what's the problem with the idea that ---in a gravitational field---
inertial bodies are accelerating?

I believe there is a point between earth and moon
where that is not true. That may be related to Your
non-response about "spaghettification" and barycentres.
You may need to double check how your notions of
gravito-inertial interaction compares with
observations in our solar system.

As for your original question:
You have a difficult argument that any work
or energy is involved if a satellite is the
same distance from a gravitational attractor
after falling for 12 hours and 25.2 minutes. ;-)


I have an answer for that yes. Work is done only to the extent that a
change in speed is caused by gravity. That of course requires
falling through through the potential of the field. If one conceives
a circular orbit, gravity does no work on the orbiting body.
.

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