Re: Gauge theories in economics and physics

From: Paul Danaher (watwinc_at_verizon.net)
Date: 08/27/04


Date: 27 Aug 2004 07:10:22 -0400


Franz Heymann wrote:
> "Eric A. Forgy" <forgy@uiuc.edu> wrote in message
> news:3fa8470f.0408260841.52ce3477@posting.google.com...
>
> [snip]
>
>> Now, a "portfolio" of stuff can be thought of as an abstract vector
>> whose magnitude is the "value" of the portfolio. Each item in the
>> portfolio has it's own value and you can think of them as components
>> of a vector.
>
> This sounds remarkably like nonsense. The components of a vector are
> all orthogonal to one another. What does the concept of
> "orthogonality" mean in the present context?
> The magnitude of a vector can be determined from a knowledge of its
> components. How is this concept handles quantitatively in the
> presentcontext?

Well, orthogonality here would mean that the prices of the individual assets
are unrelated, i.e. a change in the price of one asset wouldn't affect the
price of another. However, there's no reason to assume this, and it would
typically be wrong anyway. The magnitude of the vector would be the value of
the portfolio, expressed in a given currency at a given date (showing the
present value of assets maturing in the future). Something I haven't seen in
the papers I've read so far in this collection is discussion of present
value where there are (a) multiple interest rates and (b) negative interest
rates - if anybody's seen that, I'd be grateful for a pointer.



Relevant Pages

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