a question about non - locality

From: Kevin Blake (kvblake2003_at_yahoo.com)
Date: 03/23/05 

Date: Wed, 23 Mar 2005 20:52:01 +0000 (UTC)

In Bjorken and Drell - QED part 1 I read a statement that one doesnt
use a square rooted Hamiltonian (H= SQRT/m*2.c*4+m*2.p*2/) in a wave
equation of the Schoedinger type
(–ih.dpsi/dt=H.psi) because after expanding the root in Taylor series
one gets all powers to infinity of the space derivatives. This makes
the theory non-local.

1.Now I don't inderstand how the n+1 derivative is more non- local
than the n-th derivative – in the end all is taken to the limit of the
local point)
2.Then in the quantum theory based on Schroedinger equation there are
only second order derivatives over space but nevertheless one is left
at the end with a non-local theory (EPR type paradoxes).

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