Re: Renormalization
- From: "Chris Oakley" <coakley@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Wed, 13 Apr 2005 05:22:33 +0000 (UTC)
> Igor Khavkine wrote:
> > Yes, you do go back and change the initial axioms and relationships.
> > However, you do it in such a way that repeating the same exact steps you
> > did before gets you to an integral that is no longer divergent but is
> > regulated in a specific way. However, physicists often skip the explicit
> > steps of going back and changing the Lagrangian and simply perform
> > manipulations directly on the integral expressions. Just because these
> > steps are often skipped, does not mean that they are not there
> > implicitly.
> >
> > Igor
>
> If this is the case then you and I are in argreement. This was the
> point I was trying to make all along - you should go back and change
> the formal structure (in this case the Lagrangian) so that the end
> results are derived from the initial formal structure.
>
> Dan Solomon
Actually this is not true at all. For example, I have never seen anyone
develop a quantum field theory for an arbitrary complex number of spacetime
dimensions in order to justify dimensional regularization later on - it is
simply an assumption that this is (a) possible and (b) leads to similar
formal expressions as that for 3+1 dimensions. This is why I was interested
in Dr. Neumaier's claim that he could develop QFT in 3+1 dimensions with an
extra parameter (the cutoff) being present in the theory right from the
beginning. In a thread where I was inviting him to develop his argument, I
posted the following, but it never reached the newsgroup, but at the same
time, I received no message from the moderator to say that the message was
unacceptable. Let me therefore try again:
[Quote from earlier post by AN, with corrections & equation numbers]
> Consider
> V:= integral V(t) dt [1]
> with
> V(t,\x):= gamma integral d\x Phi(t,\x)^4. [2]
> which is the interaction defining Phi^4 theory in the
> interaction picture.
>
> Introduce x=(t,\x) and rewrite V in 4-momentum space.
>
> Then regularize by introducing a cutoff Lambda, to get a
> regularized V_Lambda.
>
> Then go back to spacetime coordinates and convince yourself
> that the regularized theory corresponds to
> V_Lambda(t,\x):= gamma integral d\x Phi_Lambda(t,\x)^4, [3]
> where Phi_Lambda(t,\x) can be given explicitly in terms of
> its Fourier transform. Phi_Lambda(t,\x) is simply a smeared
> version of Phi. It satisfies almost standard CCR, except that
> the scalar function arising from the commutator is smeared, too.
> But this makes it nonsingular, and hence amenable to a canonical
> treatment.
It is certainly clear that if I write
\Phi(x) = \int d^4p e^{ip.x} \Phi(p)
and then put some kind of limiting on the four-momentum integral with
parameter Lambda to get \Phi_\Lambda then equation [3] follows from
equation [2].
However, we have just one Lambda and four dimensions of momentum. Are
you using Lambda to limit all the momentum integrals or just the spatial
ones? If so, how, exactly?
.
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