Re: Postulates for quantum mechanics (was; Is State Vector Reduction
- From: Arnold Neumaier <Arnold.Neumaier@xxxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Sun, 3 Jul 2005 02:29:35 +0000 (UTC)
Seratend wrote:
Arnold Neumaier wrote:
Comments: ------------- a) Axiom 3 defines one property: closed (open=[closed]*). However, it does not define what systems are neither closed nor opened.
It defines 'open' as 'not closed'. Thus your third category is empty.
Oups! I am sorry (dyslectic error : )), I meant it does not say what system is closed or opened.
This is on the same level as that thermodynamics does not say which system is an ideal gas and which is only a van-der-Waals gas.
Theories of physics do not say what a system (such as an electron, a star, an ideal gas, a crystal) is in reality. Nevertheless, it is possible to check the reality contents of a physical theory. How does this come about?
Let us consider thermodynmaics. Thermodynamics does not say which system is an ideal gas, which is only a van-der-Waals gas, which is a liquid, or a solid.
Indeed, such questions need not be answered by the theory. Instead, they are answered by checking how a system behaves:
If a real system behaves as the theory for an ideal gas (a solid, a crystal, an electron) requires, a physisict will say it 'is' an ideal gas (a solid, a crystal, an electron); if not, it is not.
While this definition may seem circular, it isn't once it is recognized that one can check some characterizing properties of systems that have a particular label (such as 'ideal gas') by a small amount of measurements, and then deduce many more properties from the theory that can be checked subsequently.
Engineers call this process 'system identification'.
Thus the task of theory is to provide models with just enough flexibility that they cover the range of relevant possibilities, while being still restricted enough so that one can identify the system with a limited amount of data. Exactly in this case a theory has predictive value.
For example, the system 'hydrogen atom' can be closed or interacting with another system.
Yes. In other words we have: Case A: (K, H_hydrogen, closed) Case B: (K, H_hydrogen', open)
Yes, and a deeper level model for case B would be to add the context as part of a bigger model which perhaps can be considered as closed.
=> the closed/open property should be associated to the Hamiltonian of the generic system for a better logical definition of the system handled by your axiomatic set. In other words, you use the words "a generic system is defined" in axiom 1 and the closed/open is necessary to define the system.
I rather consider this as a subsequent refinement of the theory, so it does not need to show up in axiom 1. It is like considering first verctor spaces in general, and then requiring something extra such as finite-dimensional. In our case, the extra is 'closed'.
Mathematics would be clumsy if all later conceptsd would have to be introduced on the level of basic axioms. I use the freedom customary in mathematics to get a good formal voew of physics.
b) For, me " spin_vector, momentum etc ... of axiom 4 are just labels of mathematical objects in these axioms (no connection with "reality" without a minimalist interpretation.
They are (like energy) mathematical objects in the theory. At the same time they suggest an interpretation, without forcing anyone to make this interpretation precise. Like numbers as part of Peano's axiom system and as the size of real collections of objects.
Yes, but the natural numbers of peano are not necessary the natural numbers of other theories. They just share some common properties. One must not forget this point, especially when building its own interpretation.
Of course. I was just comparing 'number theory' with 'physics', as far as their formal foundations are concerned. To apply numbers to reality one would need an interpretation of what a number should mean outside the formal context. This step is usually omitted since in number theory no one finds it problematic.
Note that the minimalist interpretation, I know, is the logical choice to map some mathematical properties/objects to some reality properties.
This mapping is, in my view, wholly outside logic.
To bring it into the realm of logic, one needs a formal model of reality. Such a formal model is indeed what I am aiming at in my consistent experiment interpretation.
I do care. For I want to be able to represent ultimately _everything_ physicists do in their work on the formal level, so that it can be discussed with the same rigor as formal logic discusses what mathematicians do. Thus every concept used by physicists must ultimately get a formal version.
Yes, it allows to construct logical sentences with the word "prediction" in the context of this axiomatic set.
However, this is not important for the foundations: we can choose this
definition for "prediction" or another one: it does not change the
results we may deduce from axioms 1 to 5.
But it delineates its use in reality. I put it in for clarity, since I see no benefit in having a minimal set of axioms which is difficult to understand.
I think that Axiom 6 serves this purpose for 'prediction', while Axiom 7 does not and just codifies the current minimal consensus, while a future complete theory would have to replace this by a set of formal axioms defining on the mathematical level what is meant by 'measuring', 'outcome' etc. This would require a theory of multiparticle detectors.
A current minimalist consensus must be a logical one in order to be useable => We must before solve the implicit formal mapping that may exist in your axiom 7 or clarify it.
As I said before, there cannot be a logical use of objects in 'reality' unless reality itself is given a formal meaning.
On the other hand, a formal correspondence is not needed to have
practical interpretation. See the section
''What is a system (e.g., an ideal gas)?'' (currently S16i) in my
theoretical physics FAQ at
http://www.mat.univie.ac.at/~neum/physics-faq.txtHowever, there is a confusion between "the outcomes of measuring an observable" and "outcomes" of a random variable.
''Outcomes of a random variable'' is meaningless. Random variables are mathematical objects for which the notion 'outcome' is undefined.
Please, an outcome is explicitly defined in the usual probability context. There is no ambiguity. Any mathematical introduction book to probabilities deal with outcomes and random variables.
This is perhaps again a difference between different traditions? That's why I proposed to use Wikipedia as a reference. For me, 'outcome' is an informal interpretational concept in probability theory, while 'realization' is the formal object.
Random variables have 'realizations', which is a formal version of 'outcome' but it has a different formal meaning - Probability theory makes no assertion at all about single outcomes, but only assertion about the ensemble of _all_ outcomes.
A random variable is a measurable function between the set omega (the
sample space) and another set, the set of some possible outcomes (that
can be the set omega).
This only defines the concept 'possible outcome'. For me, the possible outcomes of a random variable are complex numbers though some or most of them might occur with probability 0. Thus I don't need this concept on the formal level.
The outcome value of a random variable in a particular experiment is what you call a realization of a random variable.
No. In my usage, a (scalar) random variable maps Omega to C (the set of
complex numbers); the elements of Omega are called the realiziations,
and f(omega) is the value of f in the realization omega.
(Note that Omega must be a really huge set for most constructions of measure theory. Only in useless toy examples, it is a small set like {1,...,6}. The law of large numbers cannot be formulated with such a
small set.)
In the informal interpretation, one would identify each realization omega with an experiment, and the value f(omega) as the outcome of f
in this experiment.
This is the short definition of the random variable (usually in introduction courses the random variable function is restricted to the set of real numbers) as well as the outcome.
Now take wikipidia: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Random_variable
[Quote] Unlike the common practice with other mathematical variables, a random variable cannot be assigned a value; [end Quote]
And later: [Quote] As noted above, a random variable is essentially a function mapping events to numbers. [end Quote]
I do not know how to write a correction to wikipedia.
There is a link on the top of each page for suggestions for editing the page. But make sure your version is really better before you do so.
But this seems to be completely false and inconsistent.
No. This is fully correct (apart from that 'event' should be more concisely 'elementary event').
Now, let's take the book introduction to probability, Grinstead and Snell, published by the American Mathematical Society as a more consistent reference. It is freely available in pdf format at:
http://www.dartmouth.edu/~chance/teaching_aids/books_articles/probability_book/book.html
Let's quote the beginning of section 1.1
[Quote] ------------------------------------- In this chapter, we shall first consider chance experiments with a finite number of possible outcomes omeg_1, omeg_2, . . . , omeg_n. For example, we roll a die and the possible outcomes are 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 corresponding to the side that turns up. We toss a coin with possible outcomes H (heads) and T (tails). It is frequently useful to be able to refer to an outcome of an experiment. For
This is not formal enough. What is an experiment?
I want foundations that don't refer to reality but remain on the formal level.
example, we might want to write the mathematical expression which gives the sum of four rolls of a die. To do this, we could let Xi, i = 1, 2, 3, 4, represent the values of the outcomes of the four rolls, and then we could write the expression X1 + X2 + X3 + X4 for the sum of the four rolls. The Xi's are called random variables.
This is a very informal explanation, not a mathematical treatise.
A random variable is simply an expression whose value is the outcome of a particular experiment. Just as in the case of other types of variables in mathematics, random variables can take on different values.
[End quote]
I hope, you accept the definition of the outcome as a particular value of a given function (a random variable).
No. I don't understand what a 'particular value' is on the formal level. Only the set of 'possible outcomes' is well-defined, but not a procedure to select one of them as particular.
In other words, a random variable A defines an outcome a through the functional property a=A(o) where "o" is an element of the sample space omega: this is the logic behind the probability framework. In other words the functional mapping defines the true properties of the experiment realizations. Without this procedure, speaking of an outcome of an experiment looses its logical meaning.
In the concise and formal terminology I am using, o is the realization and a the value of A in the realization o. (But I prefer to write omega for the realization and f for the random variable.)
Probability theory makes no statements at all about values a=A(o) of particular realizations o.
If you do not explain that, Axiom 7 has no meaning.
I agree to the statement that 'Axiom 7 has no mathematical meaning' That's why I call it part of the interpretation.
???? what is an axiom without a logical signification?
Axiom 7 is meaningless mathematically since the terms it uses are not formally defined. So let us drop the name 'axiom' and call what was till now Axiom A7 'statement MI' (for minimal interpretation), clearly exhibiting its non-formal nature.
Please, the axiom is used in a mathematical context and must be consistent. If you do not explain, for example, the logic behind the words "statistically consistent" axiom 7 is simply an empty (of logic) sentence.
I will try to help you:
Let's do again some basic logic with the axiom 7.
Statement MI is not for formal logical reasoning but for informal rerasoning in the traditional cultural setting that defines what a trained physicist understands by reality.
Let's label each system of the large collection of independent identical systems. Let's call this collection of labels the set O (for Omega), the sample space.
I prefer writing out Greek letters (with exception of the abbreviation eps for epsilon)
Let's give a label to each different outcomes of the given large collection of independent identical systems. Let's call the set of these possible outcome labels F_X.
I hope, you accept this logical construction is allowed by your axiom 7 and does not change the results of the axiom 7.
Many different interpretations of statement MI are possible and allowed since i do not fix its formal contents. And different people _will_ interpret it differently.
The lack of precision in statement MI is on purpose, since it allows the statement to be agreeable to eveyone in its vagueness; different philosophical schools can easily fill it with their own understanding of the terms in a way consistent with the rest.
So I won't agree on fixing the contents of statement MI any more precisely than I did.
On the other hand, I think it is worthwhile to create a formal
model reality in which statement MI can be given a formal meaning.
In such a model reality one can discuss the consequences of MI
and analyze (formal) experiments, and thus analyze the consistency
of quantum mechnaics in the same way as formal logic analyzes the
consistency of mathematics. Indeed, my consistent experiment interpretation contains (in my German FAQ) germs of such a
model reality.
Now, lets define the function X_logic by the couple (o, x), for each o in the set O, where o is the label of one independent identical system and x, the outcome associated to "upon measuring at time t=0 the independent identical system" labelled o.
=> X_logic is the function: O --> F_X o --> x= X_logic(o)
This is logic. We still haven't changed the axiom 7. I hope you accept this logical construction. Now X_logic is a genuine random variable defined in the context of measuring a large collection of identical independent systems.
I don't deny that one can formalize MI. But then one postpones only the interpretational problems to the stage where the formal parts of this
formulation must be related to reality. There is no escape from this
dilemma.
On the other hand, a formalization of MI that meets the demands of understanding the measurement process is much more difficult than what you presented above.
However, it has informal meaning - everything stated is understandable by every practicing quantum physicist.
?? by a statistical consistency? With what? Frankly, I have tried to give a logical content to this axiom and up to now, I have failed.
There is no logical content but informal content.
Physicists know how to check a statistical prediction against experiments. This knowledge defines statistical consistency.
All the experiments I know rely on the eigenvalue - real outcome
formal link (the minimalist interpretation):
No. This only applies to ideal von-neumann measurements. read the book by Braginski and Khalili that I had quoted to see why it is hopelessly inadequate in realistic cases.
Interpretational axioms necessarily have this form, since they must assume some unexplained common cultural background for perceiving reality.
??? Interpretational axioms define the logical content/use of the
"reality" words, that's all.
'reality' is an empty word if not filled by a social context.
It seems we differ very much in our understanding of the nature of reality.
There is a difference between interpreting and the logical construction of a formal mapping between physical results and outcomes (what I mean) on a given "experiment" [i.e. a contextual formal mapping]
I don't see at all how one can give formal mappings between formal and nonformal entities.
Well take a ball. A formal mapping is the association, for example, of the property position x, where position and x are completely defined in the context of a given theory.
Neither the ball nor its position are formally defined, hence your statement hangs in the air.
Formal logic can be taught to a computer. Your example cannot, hence is not formal.
I therefore may logically say that frequency= Card(A)/Card(E) is an approximation of the probability law p(A)
'approximation' is a formally empty word.
Approximation may be well defined by the definition of a topologic space. It may be well quantified by the definition of a metric space.
Is 1 an approximation to 0, or to 0.999, or to 0.999999? Who decides?
The properties we formally attach to the "reality". For example, 1 may be an excellent approximation to 10^10000 if we decide such a property (i.e. a is a good approximation of b iff |a-b| < 10^100000000000000). Generally we try to make more general quantifiers such |a-b|/b when b=/=0, etc ...
I agree that |x-1|<=0.001 is a formal statement. But 'x is an approximation to 1' is not; it is formally empty.
Well, If I have a non separable space, a discrete non degenerated spectrum observable does not exist in a non separable Hilbert space (problem of the non countable basis).
This is not true. Any projector to some ray is selfadjoint and has the spectrum {0,1}.
? This projector is highly degenerated. Ker(P) has an uncountable basis if the eigenspace 1 is finite or countable dimensional.
This doesn't matter. It is selfadjoint and has
>>the spectrum {0,1}, hence has all the properties required of an observable in typical textbooks.
The entangled state of a PDC crystal, the squid states, coherent states, etc ... All of them may be attached to specific observables otherwise, we cannot used them in defining the preparation of well known experiments.
These are states, not observables.
? A laser + a PDC does not define an observable that has the entangled state (as an approximation) as an eigenvector?
If no, how can we do an experiment where I may say I have an entangled state?
Since certaion properties of states can be observed by measuring certain observables in these states.
Arnold Neumaier
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