Re: Lorentz violation of the Standard Model

Dear Ignor Khavkine,

Yes, a "reasonable refutation" can be subject to my judgment and that is
why I have been trying to inquire and listen to other's opinions with
open-minded.

I am afraid I cannot see why my argument fails from your statement in
the following. I will be very grateful if you can explain in more
details.

> The left- and right-handed components of massive fermions (after Higgs
> symmetry breaking) are coupled symmetrically in the mass term. This is
> perfectly Lorentz invariant.

The point I made in my argument is not exactly on the Higgs mechanism,
but on the connection it makes to the real world observations. As
mentioned in FAQ in my website, this Higgs mechanism can be Lorentz
invariant as long as there exist physical observables corresponding to
the left- and right-handed components of massive fermions. The Standard
Model and its experimental tests(e.g. E158) are based the assumption
that these components represent the left-and right-handed helicity
particles. As long as I know, there is no way these components can be
related to the physical world without "the Lorentz-violating
approximation" or without the denial of fundamentality of the Dirac
equations. If I am mistaken, please correct me with the references of
paper or experiments that I can refer to.

Thanks,
J.C. Yoon

.