Re: Query about intrinsic verus orbital angular momentum



news.individual.net wrote:
[..]

So, would it be off-based to believe that classically speaking, there really is no such thing as "spin"? That is, to believe that spin is just a composite of orbital angular momenta for individual infinitesimal mass elements about an origin. I.e., one can only have a true "spin" which is not orbital, if one has a true physical "point" that also coincides with the rotational origin.

There are some interesting old threads on this (2001, "spin, what is it?")


http://groups.google.nl/group/sci.physics.research/browse_thread/thread/28ab14503887bc22/324f236055392f6d?hl=nl&lnk=st&q=angular+momentum+westendorp#324f236055392f6d

A few quotes:

What I see in my head is a circulating flow of energy and momentum density
around the borders of the particle's quantum-mechanical wave function.
Belinfante showed back in the 1930s that spin in the Dirac theory could be
interpreted this way, and H. C. Ohanian wrote a famous article about it in
the American Journal of Physics:

Hans C. Ohanian, "What is spin?" AJP 54 (6), 500-505 (1986)


So Ohanian shows that you *do* actually get spin half if you integrate angular momentum density over a Dirac wave packet!

One way you might think spin 1/2 cannot arise from a wave function, is
de Broglie's formula,

momentum = h/ wavelength

So if you have a circular wave at distance R , the angluar momentum (L)
is

L = h R / (2 pi R) = h_bar

In other words, the quantization comes from the fact that circular waves must have integer wave numbers in the tangential direction.

But for a Dirac spinor field, de Broglie's formula is a bit more complex. Also, the solution of the Dirac equation in a central potential is more complex: The spinor field is not locally aligned with the total spin.

The puzzling thing is, outof quite complex calculation, you "magically" get the spin half from the integral of angular momentum density. It would be nice if we could see this in a more intuitive way

Gerard

.



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