Re: violin question
From: JimC (jimc_at_yabba-dabba-doo.com)
Date: 06/27/04
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Date: Sun, 27 Jun 2004 10:39:38 GMT
"Andrew E. Smyth" <Rushtown@aol.com> wrote in message
news:c40a7ddb.0406262220.b042385@posting.google.com...
> Why don't two violins in the orchestra, each playing middle "C",
> produce sound waves that interfere with each other? That is, why does
> it sound like the troughs and peaks of the sound waves from each
> violin are reinforcing each other, when it's more likely they are
> interfering, or not in sync? Shouldn't two violins sound sporatic,
> and a whole string sections sound just like white noise?
A violin note is rich in harmonic content. The harmonic
frequencies have arbitrary offset phases with respect
to the fundamental. These offsets are random and
change as the same note is replayed. (They are
further modulated by the player's own fingering.)
The effect is to make the waveforms coming
from two violins different.
But, still, can the fundamental components
produce interesting beat patterns when two
violins are bowed nearly in perfect tune (*)
with each other? For the perceptive
listener, yes. But to me, the effect is more
noticeable between two well-tuned
pianos.
(* Musicians would say "in perfect
pitch".)
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