Re: violin question
From: Edward Green (spamspamspam3_at_netzero.com)
Date: 06/27/04
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Date: 27 Jun 2004 10:12:50 -0700
"JimC" <jimc@yabba-dabba-doo.com> wrote in message news:<KtxDc.6329$p_6.3434@newssvr25.news.prodigy.com>...
> "Andrew E. Smyth" <Rushtown@aol.com> wrote in message
> news:c40a7ddb.0406262220.b042385@posting.google.com...
> > Why don't two violins in the orchestra, each playing middle "C",
> > produce sound waves that interfere with each other? That is, why does
> > it sound like the troughs and peaks of the sound waves from each
> > violin are reinforcing each other, when it's more likely they are
> > interfering, or not in sync? Shouldn't two violins sound sporatic,
> > and a whole string sections sound just like white noise?
>
> A violin note is rich in harmonic content. The harmonic
> frequencies have arbitrary offset phases with respect
> to the fundamental. These offsets are random and
> change as the same note is replayed. (They are
> further modulated by the player's own fingering.)
> The effect is to make the waveforms coming
> from two violins different.
I was on the point of asking how this can be so, since the nodes of
the fundamental and the harmonic have a fixed relation; then I
realized I was confusing the spatial phase relation on the string, and
the temporal phase relation. Thanks for exposing this.
> But, still, can the fundamental components
> produce interesting beat patterns when two
> violins are bowed nearly in perfect tune (*)
> with each other? For the perceptive
> listener, yes. But to me, the effect is more
> noticeable between two well-tuned
> pianos.
>
> (* Musicians would say "in perfect
> pitch".)
Would they? Not any I can remember meeting. "Perfect pitch" is
something else, of course, and don't recall hearing the phrase "in
perfect pitch".
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