Re: Is Lorentz contraction objectively real?

From: Gregory L. Hansen (glhansen_at_steel.ucs.indiana.edu)
Date: 09/13/04 

Date: Mon, 13 Sep 2004 17:08:04 +0000 (UTC)

In article <Pine.LNX.4.44.0409131117310.31124-100000@erodium.hep.wisc.edu>,
Creighton Hogg <wchogg@hep.wisc.edu> wrote:
>
>
>On Mon, 13 Sep 2004, Gregory L. Hansen wrote:
>
>> In article <4144ebfb@sys13.hou.wt.net>,
>> Eugene Shubert <http://www.everythingimportant.org> wrote:
>>
>> >Lorentz contraction is coordinate dependent. It is subjective,
>> >misleading and not objectively real.
>>
>> Frame dependent, not coordinate dependent.
>>
>> And it's just like velocity in Newtonian mechanics, which is also frame
>> dependent. That means velocity is subjective, misleading, and not
>> objectively real.
>>
>> Whatever shall we do?
>
>Get stinking drunk and try running into walls? If velocity is misleading
>and not objectively real, then neither is kinetic energy.

Except that the distance to an object like a wall is also frame dependent,
which means it's also not objectively real! So it would be impossible to
run into walls because you cannot traverse something that doesn't exist.

Except I still have a scar on my forehead from running into the edge of a
half-opened door. Eugene and I must be making a mistake somewhere in
our reasoning. 

-- 
"'No user-serviceable parts inside.'  I'll be the judge of that!"

Relevant Pages

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    (sci.physics.relativity)
  • Re: Is Lorentz contraction objectively real?
    ... >>Lorentz contraction is coordinate dependent. ... > Frame dependent, not coordinate dependent. ... That means velocity is subjective, misleading, and not ...
    (sci.physics.relativity)