Re: LeSagian Gravitational Field Momentum Flux linked to EM/QM constants
From: Paul Stowe (ps_at_acompletelyjunkaddress.net)
Date: 10/02/04
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Date: Sat, 02 Oct 2004 21:42:52 GMT
On Thu, 30 Sep 2004 00:19:49 -0700, "FrediFizzx" <fredifizzx@hotmail.com> wrote:
>"Paul Stowe" <ps@acompletelyjunkaddress.net> wrote in message
>news:9ooml0hbtsoe1qmhkbqbprle2amoj8k4mb@4ax.com...
[Snip...]
>|> If this mass quantum is true, then most of the mass we "sense" is not
>|> fundamental mass. But it is what you would call effective mass.
>|
>| I really recommend looking at Petr Beckmann's "Einstein Plus Two",
>| Sections 2.6 & 2.7... He has the EM 'field's reaction (inertial
>| reactive 'mass') as
>|
>| uq^2
>| m = ---- (Eq. 1 Section 2.7)
>| 6piR
>|
>| Where R is the Radii measured from the center of q... What is really
>| informative (but not for Bozos like cannot conceptualized field lines)
>| is the illustration on page '137' (funny eh?)
>
> Can you scan these parts of Beckmann and email to me?
On the way...
{Sbip...]
>| Take a rubber band. Let that represent a simple torus structure. Now,
>| do anything to it other than cut it and you STILL have A = 4pi^2rR.
>| Knotting the torroid doesn't change its area definition (assuming you
>| can still know r & R in its simplest form).
>
> Yes, but how does this produce a proton. I am going with the assumption
> from the standard model that all fermions have the same basic geometry.
> Well, except for maybe neutrinos.
Ah, the million dollar question... I don't yet know. That's my problem
I haven't yet figured out the physical model of matter.
[Snip...]
>|>| So, you have a mass of the vortex @ ~2.08E-40 kg?
>|>
>|> No. That is the "bare" mass of the aetheron. If the vortex is an
>|> electron, then its mass is the electron mass relative to the rest
>|> of everything else.
>|
>| See above on EM reactive inertia (mass).
>
> I think I have shown you this before, but I can represent electron
> rest mass related to vacuum charge = +,- sqrt(hbar*c) in cgs units
> from,
>
> m_e = (e*sqrt(hbar*c)/w_C^2)(2pi/lambda_C)^3*(1/sqrt(alpha))
>
> Where w_C is electron compton frequency, lambda_C is electron compton
> wavelength. That whole expression reduces to lamda/2pi = hbar/m_e*c,
> the compton formula.
So,
m = h/lamda*c
Lose the hbar & 2pi...
> So the rest mass of an electron is electronic charge times vacuum
> charge divided by frequency squared per a volume. OK, so we also
> have the mass quantum expression from above,
> m_e = e*tesla*hbar/(m_q*c^2) in SI units,
> that produces the electron rest mass. These must be related somehow. I
> just can't see the relation yet. ??? I guess it would be helpful to get
> them in the same unit system. ;-) I will work on it some more tomorrow.
OK...
Paul Stowe
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