Re: Is electromagnetic field theory unified?

From: Bjoern Feuerbacher (feuerbac_at_thphys.uni-heidelberg.de)
Date: 03/02/05 

Date: Wed, 02 Mar 2005 17:07:42 +0100

JM Albuquerque wrote:
> "Ken S. Tucker" <dynamics@vianet.on.ca> escreveu na mensagem
> news:1109679825.893876.17420@l41g2000cwc.googlegroups.com...
>
> (snip)
>
>
>>Me thinks JM may be absorbed by "the body".
>
>
> I believe that a clear conclusion won't be possible.
> Light, radiation and induction are subjects far away to
> be clear enough.
>
> My problem here is that I have no help from nobody.

Go to a university library, grab a book on electrodynamics, learn.
If you have problems understanding something, feel free to ask
for help here.

> First I have to analyse and think deep before I say something.

First you have to learn.

> Then I have to reply at least twice, several post each day.
> I'm tired and about to give up.

Good. Give up, grab a book, learn electrodynamics. We'll see
if we still disagree then.

> Nevertheless I can't give up because I love to learn and
> I can't stop reasoning about the subject.

But you could learn much better by using decent textbooks than
by arguing in this newsgroup.

> Now they bring up a new picture of radiation, with E and B
> in phase, contrary to all that I've learn

If you ever learned differently, either you misunderstood or
your instructor was an idiot.

> and understand so far (curl E = - dB/dt).

It was already pointed out that you don't understand that equation.

> I have to digest that before I give a reply.

Again: books would help.

> They also say:
> «The field has one term which decreases as r^-2 and a second
> term which decreases as r^-1. The former is the induction field.
> It has a component in the direction of propagation (a longitudinal
> wave). It dominates at small distances from the oscillator.
> The latter is the radiated field (a transverse wave). It dominates
> at large distances, and it has components which are at right
> angles to each other and to the direction of propagation.»

All completely right.

> My guess is that they start with Maxwell's equation
> Curl E = -dB/dt decreasing as r^-2,

Huh? What on earth is this supposed to mean?

> and soon Maxwell's goes
> to heavens and bring up new equations (???) where the
> field decreases as r^-1 and a longitudinal wave turns out to
> be a transverse wave without any justification.

Plain nonsense. *All* what was said above, both components of
the fields, follow from Maxwell's equations. No new equaions needed.

> There are so many underlying subjects that a little help will be
> very appreciated.

See above.

Bye,
Bjoern

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