Re: Is electromagnetic field theory unified?

From: bz (bz+nanae_at_ch100-5.chem.lsu.edu)
Date: 03/11/05 

Date: Fri, 11 Mar 2005 13:02:09 +0000 (UTC)

Bjoern Feuerbacher <feuerbac@thphys.uni-heidelberg.de> wrote in news:d0rujm
$hs7$1@news.urz.uni-heidelberg.de:

...
> I know of no antenna which is driven at visible light frequencies.
> Do you? If not, how do you know that it wouldn't emit visible
> light?

Perhaps the 'antenna' is the electron's wave function as the function
changes from one orbital configuration to another during an allowed
transition.

...
> Yes. So what? What has that to do with your claim enough that
> radiation only occurs if the frequency is high enough???
>
> If you spin a magnet with 1 RPS, you will get radiation with
> a frequeny of 1 Hz. No problem at all there.
>
>

Agreed, but there is a problem detecting 1 Hz photons.

Also, unless the magnet is close to 1/2 wave in length, I suspect that it
would not be an efficent transformer of mechanical energy into EM energy.

Since 1/2 wave at 1 Hz is 93140 miles [149900 km], we might have a wee bit
of a problem building a magnet that large and rotating it at 60 rpm.

But why let the practical stand in the way of thought experiments? :)

It is interesting to see how close your comments and mine are.
You have much better understanding of the math than I do.
Thank you for your insight. 

-- 
bz
please pardon my infinite ignorance, the set-of-things-I-do-not-know is an 
infinite set.
bz+nanae@ch100-5.chem.lsu.edu

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