Re: Photons shapeshifting to wave prior to measurement
- From: RP <no_mail_no_spam@xxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Tue, 12 Apr 2005 21:45:38 -0500
Jack wrote:
RP,
I'm sorry didn't reply sooner as I'm being busy lately. The 3 questions are given to Schroedinger by Lorentz when Schroedinger nearly believed that particles don't exist but all just being some kind of wave phenomenon. Remember when he discovered the Schrodinger Equation of the wave function. People didn't know what it represents. It was a mystery what is the relationship between the electron and the wave function. Then a person called Born said the wave function is the location of the electron probabilistically speaking. Since they don't have better explanations. They accepted even though it has an odd sense of logic such as electrons just appearing in locations without deterministic movement between them. So you are saying Born is wrong and there was another interpretation to the Schrodinger equations?? People such as Einstein spent lifetime searching for it. Prove that particles don't exist and they are just wavelets. How can wavelets explain the photoelectric effect? Do you claim this?? But since you claim photons are just some kind of wavelents. Electrons too and other particles since they have the same behavior in the double slit experiments. Well. If they are all wavelets. Then matter don't really exist physically but just superpositions of wavelets? Huh? Is this what you mean?? Elegant hypothesis but need solid proof. This interpretations thing is very important as it can put the entire foundation of Quantum mechanics and physics in right footing. You are not arguing simply on a small part but the root of it. So spend great time finding and writing the proof. Dude.
Jack
You've misinterpreted my responses a bit. What I actually posited was that particles are inverse square fields, and that they are rigid in 4D spacetime but appear to fluctuate wrt our Galilean 3D plus time perspective. These relativistic fluctuations in the fields of the particles are the waves to which I refer. The fermion is not a wave, though it is perceived to produce waves.
I'll add to this that what is commonly regarded as spacetime is actually just the superposition of all such inverse square fields, that is, space and field are one in the same substance. Einstein derived the same conclusion when he began to think in terms of spacetime curvature as an alternative to gravitational forces.
I agree with his perspective on this because it allows for unmediated interactions. OTOH, he failed to derive an analogous theory for em interactions, which is required in order to provide logical consistency, that is, the conclusion should have been "as an alternative to force". What I mean by this, is that if he required spacetime curvature to explain forces of gravity, then it is likewise required that spacetime curvature explain forces of electromagnetism. He spent 30 years in the attempt to rectify this, but failed. IMHO this was a result of the fact that he regarded mass as something fundamental and distinct from charge. I don't agree with that speculation, but rather I am inclined to regard mass a macroscopic effect of em origins. Einstein was also inclined in this direction, regarding mass as inertial resistance brought on by an increasing electromagnetic PE with increasing velocity.
The double slit experiment for electrons produces interference because wrt the aperture, the screen, and the surroundings, the electron's field is waving. Wrt it the field is rigid, while all the other particle's fields are waving. Em interactions occur between all of these and the electron is forced from its straight line path. The pattern is a result of the surrounding geometry more so than it is of the electrons intrinsic qualities. The proof of this is direct; remove the slits and the pattern disappears. Without incorporating FTL communication you cannot account for the pattern by any other means than that which I just provided.
Richard Perry
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