Re: Many Worlds Probability Problem
- From: "kenseto" <kenseto@xxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Mon, 23 Jan 2006 15:17:19 GMT
"rev.goetz" <jimgoetz316@xxxxxxxxx> wrote in message
news:1137996742.169582.63930@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
> I am examining a probability problem related to multiverse hypotheses
> and the fine tuning of the physical constants in the observed universe,
> and I invite a critique of the related mathematics. This problem was
> first proposed by Collins and Hawking (1973) when they noticed that
> some physical constants have an infinite number of possibilities while
> they must have an exact value or there would have been no
> deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)-based life in the observed universe. And
> they proposed that an infinite number of universes would exhaust all
> possible universes.
The values of Physical constants are determined using flexible (rubber)
measuring tools such as the light path length of a meter stick and the
duration of a clock second. Therefore they could have infinite values.
Ken Seto
>
> Since the Collins and Hawking (1973) paper, various theories propose
> that there already are an infinite number of universes in multiverse
> history. For example, some say that The Many Worlds Interpretation of
> Quantum Mechanics implies that there are an infinite number of parallel
> universes due to the nature of particles and waves. And some theorize
> that each parallel universe has slightly different values for the
> physical constants while assuming the conclusion by Collins and Hawking
> (1973) that an infinite number of universes would exhaust all possible
> universes when some physical constants could have an infinite number of
> possible values.
>
> I doubt the mathematical conclusion that an infinite number of
> universes would exhaust all possible universes when some physical
> constants could have an infinite number of possible values. And I am
> trying to develop a way to examine this while dealing with the inherent
> problem of evaluating an infinite number of possible universes that
> face an infinite number of universes.
>
> For this problem, we assume that there are a hypothetical infinite
> number of parallel universes while each universe has a slightly
> different value for physical constant K, where the value is K
> originates by chaos with limits that K always has a value between 0 and
> 1. And in this case, K must equal .00000503 for a "success."
>
> (Here is a brief review of fractions related to this problem. There are
> an infinite number of fractions from 1 to .1, and from .1 to .01, and
> from .01 to .001, and ad infinitum.)
>
> I am not sure about the best way to evaluate this, and I am open to
> suggestions. And I wonder if we can use principals related to Classical
> Probability. In this case, (p) the proportion is 1 in an infinite
> number that K .00000503 while (n) the number of trials is an infinite
> number (1, 2, 3....).
>
> Would the probability of 1 success = 1 with a standard deviation = 1?
>
> Or would the probability of 1 success = 0?
>
> Or would the probability of 1 success equal something else?
>
> Or is there some other mathematical way to evaluate the statement that
> "an infinite number of universes would exhaust all possible universes
> when some physical constants could have an infinite number of possible
> values"?
>
> Reference
> C.B. Collins and S.W. Hawking, "Why is the Universe Isotropic?,"
> The Astrophysical Journal 180 (1973), 317-44.
>
.
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- Many Worlds Probability Problem
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