Relation between spinning and precession frequencies of a particle

Hi everyone,

In classical physics, is there a analytical relation (or inequality)
between spinning and precession frequencies of a particle (say, a
spinning top)?
Argument against spin angular momentum arising from spinning motion
of a quantum mechanical particle about the spin angular momentum vector
is often justified by claiming that the equatorial velocity of a point
fixed on a surface would exceed the velocity of light in high enough
magnetic field. I've seen people use this argument a few times and they
never explicitly refer to the spinning frequency of the nucleus but use
instead the precession frequency to calculate the equatorial
velocity... To me, this approach makes sense only if one can calculate,
or at least set a lower limit to the spinning frequency of a particle
from its precession frequency.
All comments and references are greatly appreciated.

Sami Tuomivaara

.

Relevant Pages

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