Re: Relation between spinning and precession frequencies of a particle

"Traveler" <traveler@xxxxxxxxxx> wrote in message
news:k2n9425isekragifkla0tv2qvmnfqccg50@xxxxxxxxxx
On Mon, 17 Apr 2006 15:02:18 -0500, "Old Man" <nomail@xxxxxxxxxx>
wrote:>
"Traveler" <traveler@xxxxxxxxxx> wrote in message
news:cuu4429066ugvs8731374p92she80aj45q@xxxxxxxxxx
On Sun, 16 Apr 2006 11:27:39 -0500, "Old Man" <nomail@xxxxxxxxxx>
wrote:

Elementary particles exhibit spin angular
momentum, but have no structure or size.

If they have no size (which is correct), then speaking of angular
momentum is pure crackpottery. Truth is, all particle properties
(including position) are intrinsic and are related to one or more of
the four dimensions (degrees of freedom) of the universe. No need to
invoke any of the principles of classical macro-physics at the micro
level.

The field energy surrounding an elementary particle has finite extent
and can possess angular momentum. In QED and QFT, the angular
momentum of that field energy is quantized.

<no physics - snip >

The very fact that this supposed angular momentum is quantized
should be a clue that that there is no angular momentum in the
classical sense.

Is your head buried in the sand ? The Hamiltonian for the Schrodinger
equation includes all of classical physics. The QM energy term for
orbital angular momentum, L, is related to that of classical physics by

L^2 / ( 2 m r^2 ) = l ( l + 1) hbar^2 / ( 2 m r^2 )

Where l is an integer.

First off, angular momentum is a classical concept that has no place
at the quantum level. The reason that physicists use angular momentum
is because the interactions remind them of the effects of a spinning
billiard ball when it collides with another ball. This is lame to an
absurd degree. Applying billiard ball physics to fundamental processes
is just plain dumb. The quantum physicist should instead explain how
fundamental interactions give rise to classical observations.

It's called the Correspondence Principle: hbar -> 0.

As Old Man said above, If hbar = 0, the Schodinger
equation reduces to the classical Hamiltonian.

The sole function of the Schrodinger equation is to put
hbar in proper relationship to the classical Hamiltonian.

Savain can't worm out of quantized angular momentum
via theoretical arguments The value of hbar is determined
Empirically.

Second, an electron is continually emitting a huge stream of photons
radially (forget about the source of these photons for now, since
physicists have no clue as to how and where they're being created,
ahahaha...). This radial emission (the electrostatic field) is the
reason for Coulomb's inverse square distribution. We already know that
the electrostatic field has no "angular momentum" since the direction
of the electrostatic force is radial.

Empirical Fact: The electron,has a magnetic dipole moment.

Empirical Fact: the electron's charge distribution has no
discernable extent.

That leaves us with the magnetic field which only arises when an
electron is moving.

No: Electron Magnetic Resonance involves no such "movement"

In order to have an angular momentum, the photons
that comprise the radiating magnetic field would have to be revolving
around the electron such that their orbiting plane is perpendicular to
the direction of motion.

Silly. Photons have spin = hbar. Classical EM waves can
be circularly polarized whereof their orbital angular momentum
is zero WRT the detector. The classical EM field energy carries
angular momentum.

<snip unintelligible nonsense>

[Old Man]

Louis Savain


.

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