Re: Angular momentum
- From: "Timothy Golden BandTechnology.com" <tttpppggg@xxxxxxxxx>
- Date: 5 Nov 2006 09:47:12 -0800
Fallingeagle wrote:
Can someone explain Why the total angular momentum of a system with a
pully, and two masses joined by a massless string overt the pully
equals the angular momentum of the pully + the angular momentum of the
two masses?
why: L(sys) = L(pully) + L(masses)
I omega + m1 * v * r + m2 * v * r
This is what I do not understand:
the spin (AM) of the pully is caused by the the two masses, why is the
total spin not just the spin of the pully?
also: what is spin (angular momentum)....really??
If the angular momentum of the two masses is zero then your thinking is
correct.
They will enter the sum as zeros.
There is a loose rule here not to give away answers to kids doing
homework but your thinking is clear so that should be recognized.
I'm still trying to fully understand angular momentum myself.
Particularly when particle physicists reach the attribution of
Lx, Ly, Lz
for a particle I get confused.
Ultimately a system breaks down to a series of point particles.
When a rigid body is assembled it exhibits an angular momentum.
This inherently involves acceleration of its constituent point
particles.
For a rigid body this acceleration is well behaved and so it is
possible to simplify the conglomerate body with the angular momentum
analysis.
But how this can be applied to a system of particles which have not
formally entered into a rigid body structure is not apparent to me. At
this level I see only particulate momenta and so I wonder if the
attribution of these components is misinterpreted. In effect this would
be a curve-fitter's approach rather than a well motivated theory. Since
I have yet to understand the description I have to leave this
accusation hypothetical.
Your skepticism is appreciated and encouraged.
-Tim
.
- References:
- Angular momentum
- From: Fallingeagle
- Angular momentum
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