Re: Question: In SR is a clock second an interval of universal time?????



In sci.physics, PD
<TheDraperFamily@xxxxxxxxx>
wrote
on 8 Jan 2007 06:39:26 -0800
<1168267166.184011.81040@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>:


On Jan 8, 8:02 am, "kenseto" <kens...@xxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
"The Ghost In The Machine" <e...@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote in messagenews:9jt774-o89.ln1@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx





In sci.physics.relativity, Sam Wormley
<sworml...@xxxxxxxxx>
wrote
on Sun, 07 Jan 2007 18:29:25 GMT
<9_aoh.296903$FQ1.192852@attbi_s71>:
kenseto wrote:
"Sam Wormley" <sworml...@xxxxxxxxx> wrote in message
news:kiaoh.296874$FQ1.93346@xxxxxxxxxxxx
kenseto wrote:

This show me that you don't understand SR. In SR all clocks moving
wrt
the
observer are running slow. What you are saying is doppler shift and
doppler
shift is not the rate of an observed clock. Think about it: How can
the
rate
of an observed clock changes its rate when it is in a state of
uniform
motion? The answer: It can't.

Ken Seto

Seto continues to confused Doppler Effect and Relativistic Time
Dilation.
No....idiot runt it is the ghost and you who are confused.
A clock does not change rate when in uniform relative motion. The fact
that
doppler shift says that the observed clock's rate is dependent on its
direction of motion wrt the observer is evidence that doppler shift is
not
clock rate.

As I said, Seto continues to confused Doppler Effect and Relativistic
Time.
Pitiful really.

In a way, kenseto is correct; in a way, he is not. If an
observer accelerates with his local clock (assuming the
clock and the observer can handle the acceleration without
changing its signal), neither will notice nothing out
of the ordinary (apart from the acceleration artifacts).
In its way, the clock isn't changing; certainly the clock
isn't going to be observed to change *in its reference
frame*.
Of course, another observer who is not accelerating will
have a slightly different opinion.

You are confused.....when a clock is accelerated its clock rate is changed
to a slower rate compared to the clock that is not accelerated. What this
mean is that the accelerated clock's clock second will contain a larger
amount of absolute time than the stay at home clock's clock second. That is
the reason why the traveling clock accumulated less clock seconds after it
is returned.

Ken Seto

Really, Ken?

Let's start with two spaceships, A and B, in relative motion.
Because of their relative motion, the observer in A says that B's clock
is slower.
Now B, hearing this report in a message from A, says, "Wait a minute.
Maybe I should do something about this. I'm just standing still here --
I haven't been doing a thing. I think I'll turn my rocket on and speed
up."
So B turns on the rocket and of course accelerates and in fact does so
that B is now keeping pace with A. As a result of B accelerating, the
*relative* speed between A and B is now zero. The observer in A now
looks at B's clock and sees that it is now going at the same rate as
his own clock. This means that B's clock must have *sped up*.

So here we have a clear case where as a result of B's acceleration, B's
clock (as seen by A) *speeds up*, not slows down, in conflict with your
explanation, Ken.

Define "now". If B is some distance away A will not be
able to observe (using electromagnetic radiation as opposed
to a theoretical infinite-speed tachyonic device) that B's
clock has sped up until some time on A's clock has elapsed.

(Not that this is all that relevant to the question,
admittedly, but it can be an issue. :-) )


PD


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