Re: permanent magnet motor

On Feb 18, 10:06 am, mme...@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx wrote:
In article <1171789243.402497.271...@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>, "Eric Gisse" <jowr...@xxxxxxxxx> writes:

On Feb 17, 9:31 pm, "gdewi...@xxxxxxxxx" <gdewi...@xxxxxxxxx> wrote:

[...]

The Lorentz Force law absolutely denies magnetic forces doing work. I
have told you this over and over - the force is perpendicular to the
direction of movement so work is not done. Yet you refuse to
understand, and instead quote things that are irrelevant.

Nobody gives a *** about Lord Kelvin. He was wrong,

In what way he was wrong?


In lots of ways.

VIP Kelvin mentions: the conversion of heat (or caloric) into
mechanical effect is probably impossible, certainly undiscovered - but
a footnote signalled his first doubts about the caloric theory.

Here Mr Kelvin is measuring the impossible in doubts. It's cute but
it's wrong. Undiscovered is not equal to impossible. The impossibility
of perpetual motion is merely another assumption on his behalf. Seems
like a rather lazy and insulting thing to say about peoples research.
Not very noble at all. He most probably means perpetual motion is
technically impossible in 1800, he sure was right about this, people
are still not ready for it it appears. This page looks like good
physics to me. It's hard to tell.

http://www.kilty.com/pmredux.htm

in "Figure 3. No matter how we arrange the point charges there may be
a lateral force on the rotor axle, but never a force couple to turn
the rotor. In this static situation the curl of E is always zero."

So, in my opinion this should explain why there is no drag on the
primary wheel of my apparatus.

Can you confirm I'm not quoting any wild assumptions here?

Or at least explain why I am wrong if you disagree?

That would be cool.

Thanks.

http://gabydewilde.googlepages.com/magnetmotor

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