Re: counting the degrees of freedom

On Jun 19, 11:53 am, Igor <thoov...@xxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
On Jun 17, 2:52 pm, Edward Green <spamspamsp...@xxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:





On Jun 17, 1:33 pm, Igor <thoov...@xxxxxxxxxx> wrote:

On Jun 17, 10:50 am, Edward Green <spamspamsp...@xxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
In this scheme is there implicitly a local propagation vector --
something like a fluid velocity -- built into the one dimensional
case, which also doens't count?

Particles in one dimension would have no choice but to be polarized
longitudinally, if that's what you asking. So massless gauge
particles in one dimension would probably make no sense, but then
restricting things to just one dimension is usually begging for
problems to begin with. Interesting physics doesn't usually result
until you talk about two of them.

Poor phrasing. I should have said "degrees of freedom".

I was noting that if we roughly said the electromagnetic field had two
degrees of freedom, then we are apparently regarding k as a given. I
was wondering is something similar were implicit in a "scalar field".

That's one reason why scalar particles, like the proposed Higgs,
should be massive. Just how do you detect something that has no mass,
no spin, and no charge?

Like right-handed massless neutrinos, another in a class of "useless"
particles. If a particle doesn't interact with anything at all, does
it have any physical meaning?

The particle has to have at least one degree
of freedom to be physically viable. As an aside, you might want to
lookup the concept of the Goldstone boson and the problems associated
with them.- Hide quoted text -

- Show quoted text -


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