Re: How an electrostatic gravity is possible

On Mon, 17 Sep 2007 franklinhu@xxxxxxxxx wrote:

On Sep 17, 1:09 pm, "Timo A. Nieminen" <t...@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
On Mon, 17 Sep 2007, Szczepan Bialek wrote:
"Igor"
Congratulations! You just discovered the basic principles behind the
Van der Waals interactions, something that has been known to
physicists for centuries. These are the forces responsible for
cohesion.

And gravitation: "'Aepinus (1724-1802) also suggested that the attractive
forces between two uncharged bodies might be very slightly greater than the
repulsive
forces and that this difference might be the cause of gravitation."

So it's been said, but it's not true. Aepinus did not say so; Aepinus said
that since neutral matter has equal quantities of positive and negative
electricity, electric forces on it can cancel, allowing gravitation to
occur without electric forces interfering.

We discussed this back in February. I wonder if there was an English
translation available back in the 19th century, or even in the early 20th?
Perhaps misreading the Latin is the source of the error.

I really don't care what Aepinus said or didn't say. I say that
gravity may be caused by the attractive forces being slightly larger
than the repelling forces in neutrally charged objects. Lets discuss
that rather an ancient history.

Simple test: Is the gravitational acceleration of an anti-proton the same
as that of an electron. Also, neutron vs anti-neutron?

Your calculation isn't very convincing. It looks like you measured the
distances to the nearest 1/4 inch, used these for your calculation, and
found a difference in the forces of about 1.5%.

Proof that, given an inverse square force law, a spherically symmetric
source (mass, in the case of gravity, electric charge for electric forces)
produces exactly the same force as a point source at the centre, was given
by Newton. Note that a circular distribution is not spherically symmetric.

Finally, to say the attractive and repulsive forces are imbalanced means
that the force constant (K in your equation) is different in the two
cases. Why don't you try that in your calculation? Assume you have a
proton and an electron in the same location, and another two some distance
away. Use one value of K for the attractive forces, and a different value
of K for the repulsive forces. Then you'll get the kind of result you're
looking for.

--
Timo
.

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