How to compute std dev of time series?
From: nomail1983 (nomail1983_at_hotmail.com)
Date: 12/27/04
- Next message: Timothy Little: "Re: any successful stories of gambling using those math/stat theorems?"
- Previous message: Mack: "Re: any successful stories of gambling using those math/stat theorems?"
- Next in thread: beliavsky_at_aol.com: "Re: How to compute std dev of time series?"
- Reply: beliavsky_at_aol.com: "Re: How to compute std dev of time series?"
- Messages sorted by: [ date ] [ thread ]
Date: 27 Dec 2004 00:04:51 -0800
Two questions ....
1. In general, how do we compute the std dev of a time
series (of periodic percentage change)?
2. Also, what is the "conventional" method for computing
the std dev of the periodic percentage change of
investments, if different from #1?
The two answers might be different due to "conventional
usage" by technical analysts. I don't know.
I intend to apply this to the time series of the periodic
percentage change in the S&P500 index, for example.
I thought this is a no-brainer. But I raise the question
because the results of my computation does not match
published numbers for an example time period.
According to one web site [1], the std dev of a time
series of percentage changes of EPS (earnings per share)
is computed as follows (is there a simpler expression?):
v = SUM( (LN(r[t]) - LN(gavg))^2, t=1,...,n ) / n
gsd = EXP(v^(1/2)) - 1
where gavg is the geometric mean of r[t], t=1,...,n.
r[t] is 1+g[t], where g[t] is the percentage change.
But a text on the mathematics of investment analysis [2]
shows an example where the std dev of the time series of
percentage changes of investment return rates is simply:
gsd = v^(1/2) - 1
What is the correct answer, either or both statistically
and according to "conventional usage" for investment
analysis?
I note that in [1], we are looking at percentage changes
of numbers that represent dollars, whereas in [2], we are
looking at percentage changes of numbers that represent
percentages. But if that makes a difference, I need some
help in understanding why. In my view, in both cases, we
are looking at percentage changes of numbers.
PS: Both sources have the same formula for the (geometric)
mean of the time series of percentage changes in return
rates, namely:
gavg = (r[1]*...*r[n])^(1/n) - 1
= EXP( SUM( LN(r[t]), t=1,...,n ) / n ) - 1
(gavg = (y[N]/y[0])^(1/N) when N = n -- e.g, when no
outlying r[t] are removed.)
However, the [2] text later computes the mean of an example
(the same example used for the std dev above) simply:
gavg = SUM( LN(r[t]), t=1,...,n ) / n ) - 1
-----
[1] http://www.thinkingapplied.com/means_folder/deceptive_means.htm
[2] Fabozzi, "Fixed income Math: Analytical & Statistical
Techniques", 3d ed, McGraw-Hill, 1997, ISBN 0-7863-1121-5.
- Next message: Timothy Little: "Re: any successful stories of gambling using those math/stat theorems?"
- Previous message: Mack: "Re: any successful stories of gambling using those math/stat theorems?"
- Next in thread: beliavsky_at_aol.com: "Re: How to compute std dev of time series?"
- Reply: beliavsky_at_aol.com: "Re: How to compute std dev of time series?"
- Messages sorted by: [ date ] [ thread ]