Re: r-Squared Question
- From: "Reef Fish" <Large_Nassau_Grouper@xxxxxxxxx>
- Date: 13 Jul 2005 09:35:43 -0700
Jerry Dallal wrote:
> I wrote:
>
> > It depends how you defined R2. If you define it as the square of the
> > correlation between observed and predicted, then it's a weakness.
What do you mean "a weakness"?
For OLS fitted regression, R^2 is ALWAYS the correlation between
the observed Y and the fitted Y.
What a tangled web we weave, when we stray from the standard linear
model methods in statistics to nonstatistical methods such as the
"arbitrary model fitting procedure" as measuring errors orthogonal
to the fitted line? What good is the new-gangled-or-mangled R^2
from a statistical point of view? A NEGATIVE value for R^2 is
second only to the "expected sign" fallacy in regression abuses.
-- Bob.
> > However if you define it as 1 - ResSS/TSS, then, for an arbitrary model
> > fitting procedure, R2 isn't even constrained to the interval [0,1],
> > since ResSS might exceed TSS.
> >
> > Here
> > > X Y YHat Y-Yhat
> > > 1 101 97 4
> > > 2 102 99 3
> > > 3 103 101 2
> > > 4 104 103 1
> > > 5 105 105 0
> > > 6 106 107 -1
> > > 7 107 109 -2
> > > 8 108 111 -3
> > > 9 109 113 -4
> > > 10 110 115 -5
> >
> > Here, TSS=82.5 and ResSS=85, so R^2 = 1-85/82.5 = -0.03, and the fitted
> > line predicts worse than always using the sample mean.
>
> I should have added that there was an earlier version of this post that
> was in error, claiming that ResSS=TSS. We don't want the corrected SS,
> but the actual SS, which differs here because the mean of the residuals
> is not 0. I've canceled my earlier post, but given the way cancels
> propagate, some copies of the original will survive. So, for the
> record, keep this post and the one with R^2= -0.03, and ignore the one
> with R^2=0.
.
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