Re: A basic question on Canonical Correlation Analysis
- From: Jerry Dallal <gdallal@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Mon, 21 Nov 2005 21:09:01 -0500
gangxu_csu@xxxxxxxxx wrote:
Hi, all,
I have a basic question about canonical correlation.
* put in the multivariate regression (multiple-input and multiple-output), and given some well-justified shrinkage/rank-reduction scheme, why would the canonical correlation give a better prediction to multiple-output than, e.g., simple correlations? Here simple correlation is one-variable to one-variable correlation. Which theoretical arguments do specifically support this statement?
I'm not completely sure I understand your question, but my fingers want to type:
Think of simple correlations as canonical correlations with restrictions on the coefficients of the canonical variables (that is, all but one are 0). You can never do worse by removing the restrictions.
.
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