Re: Multinomial approximation to Poisson ??
- From: se16@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx
- Date: 1 Sep 2006 10:03:28 -0700
Nag wrote:
Think of convergence of Binomial to Poisson. Binomial is 2-variate by
your argument and yet converges to a univariate Poisson. Given
Poisson(L) and n, Binomial(p,L/n) converges to Poisson (L) as n -> oo.
I assume you meant to say "Binomial(n,L/n) converges to Poisson (L)"
Note that the mean of Binomial(n,L/n) is L, and that the variance is
L(1-L/n) which tends towards a fixed L as n increases. By happy
coincidence the mean and variance of Poisson(L) are both equal to L.
Also note the problem that if, instead of fixing L, you fix p and let L
increase with n by having L=np, so the variance of the Binomial becomes
np(1-p) and never gets closer in any sense to the mean np. So you
cannot say "Binomial(n,p) converges to Poisson (np)".
Interpret my problem in the same way. Instead of 0 or 1 in each trial,
we get 0 or 1 or 2 or 3 or 4 in each trial. My interest is in the sum
of outcomes of n such trials and the behavior of this sum as n -> oo.
If the variance of your multinomial is not equal to its mean then a
Poisson approximation cannot help you.
.
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