Re: large negative parameter correlations in regression
- From: "Anon." <bob.ohara@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Wed, 27 Sep 2006 20:12:23 +0300
Reef Fish wrote:
Anon. wrote:Huh? It does exist. Just because my model isReef Fish wrote:Anon. wrote:I had meant covariates, but it still doesn't matter. You will stillReef Fish wrote:The keyword isOK, prove it.<snip>It's not only falsifiable, it is FALSE.
this: "If you mean-centred your variables, then the correlation will go
away." Again, falsifiable.
Then you would NOT have an intercept, you IDIOT!
"if you mean-centered your variables" ALL the variables.
have an intercept in the model.
How would you ESTIMATE a parameter that is nonexistent?
y - ybar = a + b ( x - xbar)
doesn't mean that a magically disappears.
Yes, you're right. They're not. That's why the intercept still exists even though it has a point estimate of zero.OK, the point estimate from the centred
data will be zero,
Can't blame it on Finnish, because you are an ignorant BRIT!
"nonexistent" and "zero" are not synonymous.
If there is no intercept parameter to estimate, and youIndeed...
decided to put a zero there doesn't mean that it has been
estimated.
.... that is what I wrote.but it will have a standard error about it, because
it's still being estimated.
So, it seems that we now agree that there is still an intercept to be estimated, even if all of the variables are mean centred.
Now, what is the correlation between the slope and the intercept in this case? I'm still maintaining it's zero. I'm waiting for your proof that I'm wrong, and it's non-zero.
Bob
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Bob O'Hara
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