Re: large negative parameter correlations in regression



Reef Fish wrote:
Anon. wrote:
Reef Fish wrote:
Anon. wrote:
Reef Fish wrote:
<snip>
this: "If you mean-centred your variables, then the correlation will go
away." Again, falsifiable.
It's not only falsifiable, it is FALSE.
OK, prove it.
Then you would NOT have an intercept, you IDIOT!
The keyword is

"if you mean-centered your variables" ALL the variables.

I had meant covariates, but it still doesn't matter. You will still
have an intercept in the model.

How would you ESTIMATE a parameter that is nonexistent?

Huh? It does exist. Just because my model is

y - ybar = a + b ( x - xbar)

doesn't mean that a magically disappears.

OK, the point estimate from the centred
data will be zero,

Can't blame it on Finnish, because you are an ignorant BRIT!
"nonexistent" and "zero" are not synonymous.

Yes, you're right. They're not. That's why the intercept still exists even though it has a point estimate of zero.

If there is no intercept parameter to estimate, and you
decided to put a zero there doesn't mean that it has been
estimated.

Indeed...

but it will have a standard error about it, because
it's still being estimated.

.... that is what I wrote.

So, it seems that we now agree that there is still an intercept to be estimated, even if all of the variables are mean centred.

Now, what is the correlation between the slope and the intercept in this case? I'm still maintaining it's zero. I'm waiting for your proof that I'm wrong, and it's non-zero.

Bob

--
Bob O'Hara
Department of Mathematics and Statistics
P.O. Box 68 (Gustaf Hällströmin katu 2b)
FIN-00014 University of Helsinki
Finland

Telephone: +358-9-191 51479
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