Re: Beyond simple penalized regression
- From: Jerry Dallal <gdallal@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Thu, 21 Dec 2006 06:38:25 -0500
Bob O'Hara wrote:
Jerry Dallal wrote:JS wrote:No, it is a model assumption. Like any model assumption, one can still check it. One could simply choose another prior, and see if the the results are different if the alternative prior is used.On Dec 20, 1:41 pm, Jerry Dallal <gdal...@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:I'll *give* you computational convenience. I've always considered that
a distraction. When the Gibbs sampler and MCMC hit the collective
consciousness many thought Bayesians' problems solved since it now
became feasible to use something more flexible than a conjugate prior.
However, computational feasibility is NOT where the problem is. It's this:
Either the prior matters or it doesn't. Well, it does.
But is assuming a prior any more dangerous than assuming linearity, or
normal residuals, or some other common artificiality.
Yes, and, unfortunately, the question is damning. Linearity, normal residuals, and the like can be checked. "Checking a prior" is an oxymoron. The question is damning because a prior is not something that is "assumed". It *is*.
Bob
I'll reply to both Bob and JS here. I'm not sure what kind of Bayesianism you're practicing. I understand how to check model assumptions, but if checking one's prior is not an oxymoron, then the type of Bayesianism you're suggesting becomes nothing more than a self-fulfilling prophecy.
If the rule is that a prior is okay if the results don't change when the prior changes, then it's not a real prior. The whole point of Bayes methods is that the prior DOES matter. Think about it. If the chief complaint about frequentist methods is that they don't incorporate prior opinion, then what kind of an alternative is it that incorporates prior opinion only if a person's particular prior doesn't change anything?
What the two of you are suggesting seems to be nothing more than a (subtle?) recasting of noninformative priors.
.
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