Re: Simple binomial test question

Ok thanks - I am getting there :). So I calculated it right, but used wrong
termionology. Well, I did not do it properly... I was more interested that
the idea is right.

Ken Butler wrote:
On Thu, 26 Apr 2007 15:47:51 GMT, "JPK"
<POISTA_AUTO_juhafiatkettunen@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
So if I calculate propabilities to get 0,1,2
and add them I get the test value (which is about 0.054).

The usual terminology here is P-value. "Test value" doesn't really
mean anything.

and the letter "P" comes from the word "propability", i quess ...

They seem to be using "test statistic" as well in books.


But using 2-tailed
95% confidence level test, the first tail is located at 0.025 and
the right tail is at 0.975.

Here you're making it more complicated than you need to. Forget about
confidence intervals -- you're not getting an interval, you're doing a
test.

But this is important: isnt this "interval" basically the same as we have
with normal distribution tests? I am just trying to find similarities. They
do call it confidence interval with normal distribution, isnt it? Is this
the same interval here basically?


Becouse 0.054 is more than 0.025 , the null hypothesis
remains, so we cannot say that the coin is biased.

I like this way: do the calculation you did before to get 0.054. Note
that the test is two-tailed, so multiply this by 2 to get the P-value:
2 x 0.054 = 0.108.

Compare the P-value with the alpha you chose before, say 0.05. The

understand, but isnt this the same thing ?

ps. I am not a beginner... graduated from univesity stats as secondary subj.
but been long time I have done this.


.