Re: Correlation Between Mean and Standard Deviation

So if "wider range of scores" can refer to the "average
squared difference", that is precisely what the SD *tells*
you -- it is precise, and not by any distant "implication".

I thought so. I was checking out "standard deviation" on Wikipedia (before I'm lynched for this, I know it's not exactly the most reliable source for information) and came across this statement, in the first line even:

"In probability and statistics, the standard deviation is a measure of the dispersion of a set of values"

I then clicked on "dispersion" (it was hyperlinked to another article) and came across this; also in the first line:

"In statistics, (statistical) dispersion (also called statistical variability or variation) is variability or spread in a variable or a probability distribution"

The word "spread" caught my attention. That's what I think I mean. Both sets of my data have a theoretical minimum and maximum value of 0 and 1 respectively (it can't be more or less than that). What are being measured are the aesthetic values of different manifestations of two similar types of objects.

Since I'm providing the standard deviations in a separate table, I feel obliged to say something under it. From the responses so far, I gather the possible correlation to the mean is meaningless so I've scratched that. Now I simply need to know if I could say that perhaps one group (the one with the greater standard deviation) is more "dispersed" (and hence has a wider range of possible aesthetic scores). What do you think?
.

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